Practice Tests: NCLEX-PN Practice Exam #9 - 50 questions

All 50 questions are randomized each time you take the test, and do not appear in the same order here.

 

1. While repositioning a comatose client, the nurse senses a tingling sensation as she lowers the bed. What action should she take?

• Unplug the bed's power source.
• Remove the client from the bed immediately.
• Notify the biomedical department at once.
• Turn off the oxygen.

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2. The nurse sustains a needle puncture that requires HIV prophylaxis. Which of the following medication regimens should be used?

• an antibiotic such as Metronidazole and a protease inhibitor (Saquinivir)
• two non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
• one protease inhibitor such as Nelfinavir
• two protease inhibitors

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3. What does client and family communication and education concerning restraints do?

• confuses both groups more
• helps with coping and stress levels
• encourages cooperation with the client and family
• puts the responsibility on the client and family, not the nurse

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4. Acute hyphema is associated with what type of injury?

• orthopedic
• eye
• insect sting or snakebite
• gynecological trauma

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5. Which of the following microorganisms are considered normal body flora?

• staphylococcus on the skin
• streptococcus in the nares
• Candida albicans in the vagina
• pseudomonas in the blood

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6. In an obstetrical emergency, which of the following actions should the nurse perform first after the baby delivers?

• Place extra padding under the mother to absorb blood from the delivery.
• Cut the umbilical cord using sterile scissors.
• Suction the baby's mouth and nose.
• Wrap the baby in a clean blanket to preserve warmth.

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7. Which of the following clients require airborne precautions?

• a client with fever, chills, vomiting, and diarrhea
• a client suspected of varicella (chickenpox)
• a client with abdominal pain and purpura
• a client diagnosed with AIDS

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8. A risk management program within a hospital is responsible for all of the following except.

• identifying risks
• controlling financial loss due to malpractice claims
• making sure that staff follow their job descriptions
• analyzing risks and trends to guide further interventions or programs

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9. How many feet should separate the nurse and the source when extinguishing a small, wastebasket fire with an appropriate extinguisher?

• 1 foot
• 2 feet
• 4 feet
• 6 feet

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10. Acyclovir (Zovirax) is the agent of choice for which of the following infections?

• HIV
• AIDS
• candida
• herpes

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11. Attaching a restraint to a side rail or other movable part of the bed can.

• do nothing to the client
• injure the client if the rail or bed is moved
• help the client stay in the bed without falling out
• help the client with better posture

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12. The nurse should perform which intervention when a client is restrained?

• Remove the restraints and provide skin care hourly.
• Document the condition of the client's skin every 3 hours.
• Assess the restraint every 30 minutes.
• Tie the restraint to the side rails.

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13. How is the information documented on incident reports used?

• to analyze risk categories
• to make sure procedures are in compliance with regulations
• to identify the educational needs of the staff
• all of the above

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14. A client has been placed in isolation because he is diagnosed with a contagious illness. The nurse should be aware that.

• Linens from the client's bed should be double-bagged
• Meals should be served on washable dishes
• Extensive isolation rarely causes psychological problems
• Paper trays and plastic utensils prevent disease transmission

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15. An LPN is discussing medication safety with a toddler patient's parent. Which statement made by the parent would be a cause for concern?

• "I always check to make sure the safety cap 'clicks' when I close it."
• "We store all of our medicine on a really high shelf that even I need a step stool to reach."
• "To get her to take her medicine, we just tell her it's like candy."
• "We store our medicines and vitamins together."

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16. In a disaster, triage situation, the nurse should be least concerned with which of the following regarding a client in crisis?

• ability to breathe
• pallor or cyanosis of the skin
• number of accompanying family members
• motor function

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17. The nurse is teaching a client about communicable diseases and explains that a portal of entry is.

• a vector
• a source, like contaminated water
• food
• the respiratory system

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18. The nurse's first action upon discovery of an electrical fire should be which of the following?

• Disconnect the electrical power if it can be performed safely.
• Smother the source with an object such as a blanket.
• Saturate the source with water or other readily available liquid.
• Activate the fire alarm immediately.

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19. A patient placed under neutropenic precautions asks you how she can prevent infection. Which advice would be most appropriate?

• Only brush teeth once a day or every other day.
• Wash hands when finished cleaning up after pets.
• Only use pads for menstrual periods.
• Do not let visitors within 10 feet.

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20. A stool culture reveals Shigella. What corollary should the nurse recognize regarding this bacterial infection?

• People who have been in contact with the client need to be tested.
• Shigella is an airborne infection.
• Shigella is a bacteria sometimes found in stagnant water.
• The nurse should wear a one-way breathing apparatus when giving client care.

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21. Regardless of their practice area, nurses should be concerned with:

• all drug-resistant bacteria
• microorganisms that are critical
• transmission of microorganisms
• overprescription of bacteriostatic drugs

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22. The emergency triage nurse should perform which action upon receiving the history that a client has a severe cough, fever, night sweats, and body wasting?

• Place the client in the waiting room until an available cubicle is open.
• Seclude the client from other clients and visitors.
• Perform no intervention because it might not be necessary until tests confirm a disease.
• Don gown, gloves, and mask immediately.

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23. Hearing screening of prematurely born infants is an effective means of identifying disease and is an example of.

• primary prevention
• secondary prevention
• tertiary prevention
• disability prevention

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24. Which of the following statements describes the purpose of client restraint?

• Restraints are a nursing measure used to maintain client control.
• Restraints are an emergency intervention taken as a last resort to protect a client from imminent danger.
• Restraints are a therapeutic measure designed to positively reinforce client behavior.
• Restraints are an emergency measure that can only be taken by a nurse under the direct supervision of a physician.

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25. Ethical and moral issues concerning restraints include all of the following except:

• emotional impact on the client and family
• dignity of the client
• client's quality of life
• policies and procedures

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26. How often must physical restraints be released?

• every 2 hours
• between 1 and 3 hours
• every 30 minutes
• at least every 4 hours

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27. A primigravida begins labor when her family is unavailable and she is alone. She is very upset that her family is not with her. Which approach can the nurse take to meet the client's needs at this time?

• asking whether another individual wants to be her support person
• assuring her that the nursing triage group will be with her at all times
• telling her you will try to locate her family
• reinforcing the woman's confidence in her own abilities to cope and maintain a sense of control

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28. The nurse assesses a client for physiological risk factors for falls. The nurse should conclude that the client is not at risk if which of the following is discovered?

• history of dizziness
• need for wheelchair due to reduced mobility
• weakness and fatigue noted when climbing stairs
• intact recent and remote memory

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29. A client is taking the fluoroquinolone Ciprofloxin for acute prostatitis. After a few doses of the agent, he develops severe muscle pain. The most likely cause of the adverse reaction is:

• electrolyte imbalance
• impending tendon rupture
• calcium deposits
• antibiotic-associated colitis

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30. A client taking isotretinoin (Accutane) tells the nurse that she is pregnant. What should the nurse teach this client?

• Her pregnancy is threatened, and the fetus is at risk for teratogenesis.
• She has a reportable condition, and the pregnancy must be terminated.
• Accutane is a Category D drug, which means it is unsafe in pregnancy.
• Her pregnancy must be followed carefully by a genetic specialist.

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31. Serum Vancomycin levels are taken to measure.

• renal function
• therapeutic range
• trough levels
• antibiotic resistance

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32. The nurse working with elderly clients should keep in mind that falls are most likely to happen to elderly who are.

• in their 80s
• living at home
• hospitalized
• living on only Social Security income

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33. The nurse teaching a client about hepatitis and its transmission should explain that one type of hepatitis does not produce a carrier state after its acute phase.

• hepatitis A
• hepatitis B
• hepatitis C
• hepatitis D

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34. All of the following clients are in need of an emergency assessment except.

• a bleeding client who has an injury from falling debris
• an unresponsive client
• a client with an old injury
• a pregnant woman with imminent delivery

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35. The client on Floxin must be alerted to which of the following adverse effects?

• stunting of height in teens and young adults
• propensity of anovulatory uterine bleeding
• intractable diarrhea
• tendon rupture

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36. After securing the client's safety from a faulty electric bed, which action should the nurse take?

• Discuss the matter with the client's significant others.
• Document the incident in the client's record in detail.
• Notify the physician.
• Prepare an incident report.

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37. The nurse enters her first patient's room to administer morning medications. What is the first thing she should do?

• Ask the patient to verify his or her medication allergies.
• Verify the patient's full name and date of birth.
• See if the patient has had breakfast.
• Review medications and potential side effects.

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38. The nurse is preparing to administer IV Vancomycin to a client. Which of the following nursing actions should be taken first?

• performing a physical assessment prior to administration
• obtaining the most recent lab values regarding renal function
• reviewing peaks and troughs for the past few days
• ensuring the client is not allergic to the medication

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39. All of the following are causes of vaginal bleeding in late pregnancy except.

• placenta previa
• eclampsia
• abruptio placentae
• uterine rupture

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40. A client has sustained a hyphema. What intervention should the nurse take?

• Have the client wear ear protectors in the future.
• Keep the client at bed rest, typically with the head of the bed propped up.
• Apply atropine eye drops.
• Apply an ice pack to the site of injury.

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41. The nurse seeks to assess the renal function of an elderly client who is about to receive a nephrotoxic medication. Which of the following labs provides the best indicator for renal function?

• urinalysis
• creatinine and blood urea nitrogen
• chemistry of electrolytes
• creatinine clearance

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42. When a drug is listed as Category X and prescribed to women of child-bearing age/capacity, the nurse and the interdisciplinary team should counsel the client that.

• Pregnancy tests might be unreliable while taking the drug.
• She must use a reliable form of birth control.
• She should not take the Category X drug on days she has intercourse.
• She must follow up with an endocrinologist.

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43. Which of the following is responsible for laws mandating the reporting of certain infections and diseases?

• Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
• individual state laws
• National Institute of Health Research (NIH)
• Health and Human Services (HHS)

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44. Padding on a restraint helps:

• with pressure distribution so that bony prominences do not receive pressure when a client pulls against the restraints
• the client feels more secure
• to keep infection and wounds down
• to keep restraints in place

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45. Signs of internal bleeding include all of the following except:

• painful or swollen extremities
• a tender, rigid abdomen
• vomiting bile
• bruising

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46. A neighbor telephones the nurse to tell her that her child has erythema infectiosum and asks for information. The nurse knows that another name for the disorder is.

• Kawasaki disease.
• rheumatic disease.
• lupus erythematosus.
• fifth disease.

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47. A community health nurse is asked to organize a health promotion project that plans to provide glucose screening. This activity is most beneficial within what realm?

• testing that is performed by volunteers at a local department store and is open to the public
• at a professional health fair activity available for selected persons who have been screened as being at risk
• mass-marketing vouchers for free fingersticks at a local drug store, where the pharmacist makes recommendations on the findings
• testing that is performed by a nurse professional, who immediately provides education regarding the findings

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48. A physician orders the administration of ibuprofen, but the nurse notices the patient is allergic to NSAIDs. What should the nurse do?

• Find out how serious the patient's reaction is to NSAID exposure.
• Administer the medication per the physician's order.
• Contact the physician to verify the order and discuss concerns.
• Ask the patient if he or she feels comfortable taking the medication.

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49. A newborn has been delivered. An Apgar score is given. What does this scoring system indicate?

• heart rate, respiratory effort, color, muscle tone, reflex irritability
• heart rate, bleeding, cyanosis, edema
• bleeding, reflex, edema
• respiratory effort, heart rate, seizures

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50. The orientation nurse educator reviewing the biohazard legend with a class of new employees states that the emblem is affixed to containers whenever.

• there is presence of blood and body fluids
• there is the need for droplet precaution
• there is contact isolation
• there is the potential for airborne transmission

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NCLEX-PN Practice Exam #9 - 50 questions