Practice Tests: NCLEX-PN Practice Exam #16 - 50 questions

All 50 questions are randomized each time you take the test, and do not appear in the same order here.

 

1. When a client informs the nurse that he is experiencing hypoglycemia, the nurse provides immediate intervention by providing:

• one commercially prepared glucose tablet
• two hard candies
• 4-6 ounces of fruit juice with 1 teaspoon of sugar added
• 2-3 teaspoons of honey

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2. Which of the following is an inappropriate item to include in planning care for a severely neutropenic client?

• Transfuse netrophils (granulocytes) to prevent infection.
• Exclude raw vegetables from the diet.
• Avoid administering rectal suppositories.
• Prohibit vases of fresh flowers and plants in the client's room.

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3. Which of the following medications is a serotonin antagonist that might be used to relieve nausea and vomiting?

• metoclopramide (Reglan)
• onedansetron (Zofran)
• hydroxyzine (Vistaril)
• prochlorperazine (Compazine)

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4. Tuberculosis (mycobacterium) usually effects which system?

• stomach (Gl)
• heart (cardiac)
• lungs (respiratory)
• skin (integumentary)

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5. A client with Parkinson's disease has difficulty performing voluntary movements This is known as:

• akinesia
• dyskinesia
• chorea
• dystonia

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6. In examining an EKG waveform, what indicates atrial contraction?

• P-wave
• T-wave
• U-wave
• QRS-complex

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7. Which of the following terms refers to soft-tissue injury caused by blunt force?

• contusion
• strain
• sprain
• dislocation

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8. A client newly diagnosed with Diabetes Mellitus needs education. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in this education?

• "You can eat anything you want, but no foods with sugar."
• "You need to lose weight, so your diet must be a restricted one."
• "You need a diet and exercise program."
• "You must eliminate all salt, fat, and sugar from your diet."

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9. Signs of impaired breathing in infants and children include all of the following except:

• nasal flaring
• grunting
• seesaw breathing
• quivering lips

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10. A pregnant Asian client who is experiencing morning sickness wants to take ginger to relieve the nausea. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?

• "I will call your physician to see if we can start some ginger."
• "We don't use home remedies in this clinic."
• "Herbs are not as effective as regular medicines."
• "Just eat some dry crackers instead."

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11. The sexually transmitted disease, sometimes referred to as the silent STD, that is more common than gonorrhea and a leading cause of PID is:

• genital herpes
• trichomoniasis
• syphilis
• chlamydia

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12. A client comes to the clinic for assessment of his physical status and guidelines for starting a weight-reduction diet. The client's weight is 216 pounds and his height is 66 inches. The nurse identifies the BMI (body mass index) as:

• within normal limits, so a weight-reduction diet is unnecessary
• lower than normal, so education about nutrient-dense foods is needed
• indicating obesity because the BMI is 35
• indicating overweight status because the BMI is 27

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13. Which of the following is likely to increase the risk of sexually transmitted disease?

• alcohol use
• certain types of sexual practices
• oral contraception use
• all of the above

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14. The test used to differentiate sickle cell trait from sickle cell disease is:

• sickle cell preparation
• peripheral smear
• sickledex
• hemoglobin electrophoresis

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15. Erythropoietin used to treat anemia in clients with renal failure should be given in conjunction with:

• iron, folic acid, and B12
• an increase of protein in the diet
• vitamins A and C
• an increase of calcium in the diet

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17. The LPN is asked to perform an occult blood test. What type of sample should be collected?

• sputum sample
• arterial blood sample
• venous blood sample
• stool sample

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18. Which instruction should be given in a health education class regarding testicular cancer?

• All males should perform a testicular exam after the age of 30.
• Testicular exams should be performed on a daily basis.
• Reddening or darkening of the scrotum is a normal finding.
• Testicular exams should be performed after a warm bath or shower.

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19. When administering intravenous electrolyte solution, the nurse should take which of the following precautions?

• Infuse hypertonic solutions rapidly.
• Mix no more than 80 mEq of potassium per liter of fluid.
• Prevent infiltration of calcium, which causes tissue necrosis and sloughing.
• As appropriate, reevaluate the client's digitalis dosage. He might need an increased dosage because IV calcium diminishes digitalis's action.

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20. Acyclovir is the drug of choice for:

• HIV
• HSV 1 and 2 and VZV
• CMV
• influenza A viruses

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21. What do the following ABG values indicate: pH 7.38, PO2 78 mmHg, PCO2 36mmHg, HCO3 24mEq/L?

• metabolic alkalosis
• homeostasis
• respiratory acidosis
• respiratory alkalosis

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22. Clients who take iron preparations should be warned of the possible side effects, which might include:

• dizziness and orthostatic hypotension
• nausea, vomiting, diarrhea or constipation, and stomach cramps
• drowsiness, lethargy, and fatigue
• neuropathy and tingling in the extremities

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23. A client who is newly diagnosed with Parkinson's disease and beginning medication therapy asks the nurse, "How soon will I see improvement?" The nurse's best response is:

• "That varies from client to client."
• "You should discuss that with your physician."
• "You should notice a difference in a few days."
• "It might take several weeks before you notice improvement."

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24. The LPN is caring for a patient who will be undergoing electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). Which of the following requires additional intervention prior to the procedure?

• The patient has been NPO for 8 hours.
• Pre-therapy medication has been administered as ordered.
• The patient's intravenous line has been removed.
• The patient has removed his or her jewelry.

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25. High uric acid levels can develop in clients who are receiving chemotherapy. This can be caused by:

• the inability of the kidneys to excrete the drug metabolites
• rapid cell catabolism
• toxic effects of the prophylactic antibiotics that are given concurrently
• the altered blood pH from the acid medium of the drugs

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26. A 20-year-old obese female client is preparing to have gastric bypass surgery for weight loss. She says to the nurse, "I need this surgery because nothing else I have done has helped me to lose weight." Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

• "If you eat less, you can save some money."
• "Exercise is a healthier way to lose weight."
• "You should try the Atkins diet first."
• "I respect your decision to choose surgery."

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27. Why must the nurse be careful not to cut through or disrupt any tears, holes, bloodstains, or dirt present on the clothing of a client who has experienced trauma?

• The clothing is the property of another and must be treated with care.
• Such care facilitates repair and salvage of the clothing.
• The clothing of a trauma victim is potential evidence with legal implications.
• Such care decreases trauma to the family members receiving the clothing.

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28. The nurse teaching about preventable diseases should emphasize the importance of getting the following vaccines:

• human papillomavirus, genital herpes, measles
• pneumonia, HIV, mumps
• syphilis, gonorrhea, pneumonia
• polio, pertussis, measles

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29. A client with asthma develops respiratory acidosis. Based on this diagnosis, what should the nurse expect the client's serum potassium level to be?

• normal
• elevated
• low
• unrelated to the pH

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30. Which of the following statements is true about syphilis?

• The cause and mode of transmission is unclear.
• There is no known cure for the disease.
• When the primary lesion heals, the disease is cured.
• Syphilis can be cured with a course of antibiotic therapy.

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31. Which of the following would be least likely to present itself in a prenatal patient with HELLP?

• disseminated intravascular coagulopathy
• elevated liver enzymes
• increased platelet count
• anemia

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32. The nurse asks the patient to bite down, places his hands around the jaw, and asks the patient to open his mouth against resistance. What cranial nerve is the nurse assessing?

• Cranial Nerve VI
• Cranial Nerve V
• Cranial Nerve IV
• Cranial Nerve VII

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33. For a client with suspected appendicitis, the nurse should expect to find abdominal tenderness in which quadrant?

• upper right
• upper left
• lower right
• lower left

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34. Teaching about the need to avoid foods high in potassium is most important for which client?

• a client receiving diuretic therapy
• a client with an ileostomy
• a client with metabolic alkalosis
• a client with renal disease

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35. Which of the following injuries, if demonstrated by a client entering the Emergency Department, is the highest priority?

• open leg fracture
• open head injury
• stab wound to the chest
• traumatic amputation of a thumb

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36. Teaching the client with gonorrhea how to prevent reinfection and further spread is an example of.

• primary prevention
• secondary prevention
• tertiary prevention
• primary health care prevention

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37. What happens if folic acid is given to treat anemia without determining its underlying cause?

• Erythropoiesis is inhibited.
• Excessive levels of folic acid might accumulate, causing toxicity.
• The symptoms of pernicious anemia might be masked, delaying treatment.
• Intrinsic factor is destroyed.

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38. A client, age 28, was recently diagnosed with Hodgkin's disease. After staging, therapy is planned to include combination radiation therapy and systemic chemotherapy with MOPP - nitrogen mustard, vincristine (Onconvin), prednisone, and procarbazine. In planning care for this client, the nurse should anticipate which of the following side effects to contribute to a sense of altered body image?

• Cushingoid appearance
• alopecia
• temporary or permanent sterility
• pathologic fractures

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39. A client with stress incontinence should be advised:

• to purchase absorbent undergarments
• that Kegel exercises might help
• that effective surgical treatments are nonexistent
• that behavioral therapy is ineffective

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40. An appropriate intervention for the client with suspected genitourinary trauma and visible blood at the urethral meatus is:

• insertion of a Foley catheter
• in and out catheter specimen for urinalysis
• a voided urine specimen for urinalysis
• a urologist consult

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41. The drug of choice to decrease uric acid levels is:

• prednisone (Colisone)
• allopurinol (Zyloprim)
• indomethacin (Indocin)
• hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDiuril)

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42. A client has chronic respiratory acidosis caused by end-stage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Oxygen is delivered at 1 L/min per nasal cannula. The nurse teaches the family that the reason for this is to avoid respiratory depression, based on which of the following explanations?

• COPD clients are stimulated to breathe by hypoxia.
• COPD clients depend on a low carbon dioxide level.
• COPD clients tend to retain hydrogen ions if they are given high doses of oxygen.
• COPD clients thrive on a high oxygen level.

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43. Which of the following organs of the digestive system has a primary function of absorption?

• stomach
• pancreas
• small intestine
• gallbladder

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44. A client begins a regimen of chemotherapy. Her platelet counts fall to 98,000. Which action is least likely to increase the risk of hemorrhage?

• Test all excreta for occult blood.
• Use a soft toothbrush or foam cleaner for oral hygiene.
• Implement reverse isolation.
• Avoid IM injections.

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45. Which of the following observations is most important when assessing a client's breathing?

• presence of breathing and pulse rate
• breathing pattern and adequacy of breathing
• presence of breathing and adequacy of breathing
• patient position and adequacy of breathing

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46. Which of the following should not be included in the teaching for clients who take oral iron preparations?

• Mix the liquid iron preparation with antacids to reduce Gl distress.
• Take the iron with meals if Gl distress occurs.
• Liquid forms should be taken with a straw to avoid discoloration of tooth enamel.
• Oral forms should be taken with juice, not milk.

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47. Which of the following diseases or conditions is least likely to be associated with increased potential for bleeding?

• metastatic liver cancer
• gram-negative septicemia
• pernicious anemia
• iron-deficiency anemia

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48. A client has been diagnosed with Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) and transferred to the medical intensive care unit (ICU) subsequent to an acute bleeding episode. In the ICU, continuous Heparin drip therapy is initiated. Which of the following assessment findings indicates a positive response to Heparin therapy?

• increased platelet count
• increased fibrinogen
• decreased fibrin split products
• decreased bleeding

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49. A patient in the recovery room has recently had a vaginal hysterectomy. What is this patient at an additional increased risk for?

• deep vein thrombosis
• axillary nerve injury
• paralytic ileus
• bleeding

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50. A client goes to the Emergency Department with acute respiratory distress and the following arterial blood gases (ABGs): pH 7.35, PCO2 40 mmHg, PO2 63 mmHg, HCO3 23, and oxygenation saturation (SaO2) 93%. Which of the following represents the best analysis of the etiology of these ABGs?

• tuberculosis (TB)
• pneumonia
• pleural effusion
• hypoxia

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NCLEX-PN Practice Exam #16 - 50 questions