Practice Tests: NCSBN Practice Exam #2 - 50 questions

All 50 questions are randomized each time you take the test, and do not appear in the same order here.

 

 1. The patient states, “My stomach hurts about 2 hours after I eat.” Based upon this information, the nurse suspects the patient likely has a:
 A. Gastric ulcer
 B. Duodenal ulcer
 C. Peptic ulcer
 D. Curling’s ulcer
 
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2. The nurse is caring for a patient with suspected diverticulitis. The nurse would be most prudent in questioning which of the following diagnostic tests?
 A. Abdominal ultrasound
 B. Barium enema
 C. Complete blood count
 D. Computed tomography (CT) scan
 
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3. The nurse is planning care for the patient with celiac disease. In teaching about the diet, the nurse should instruct the patient to avoid which of the following for breakfast?
 A. Puffed wheat
 B. Banana
 C. Puffed rice
 D. Cornflakes
 
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4. The nurse is teaching about irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Which of the following would be most important?
 A. Reinforcing the need for a balanced diet
 B. Encouraging the client to drink 16 ounces of fluid with each meal
 C. Telling the client to eat a diet low in fiber
 D. Instructing the client to limit his intake of fruits and vegetables
 
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5. In planning care for the patient with ulcerative colitis, the nurse identifies which nursing diagnosis as a priority?
 A. Anxiety
 B. Impaired skin integrity
 C. Fluid volume deficit
 D. Nutrition altered, less than body requirements
 
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6. The patient is prescribed metronidazole (Flagyl) for adjunct treatment for a duodenal ulcer. When teaching about this medication, the nurse would include:
 A. “This medication should be taken only until you begin to feel better.”
 B. “This medication should be taken on an empty stomach to increase absorption.”
 C. “While taking this medication, you do not have to be concerned about being in the sun.”
 D. “While taking this medication, alcoholic beverages and products containing alcohol should be avoided.”
 
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7. The nurse is preparing to administer a feeding via a nasogastric tube. The nurse would perform which of the following before initiating the feeding?
 A. Assess for tube placement by aspirating stomach content
 B. Place the patient in a left-lying position
 C. Administer feeding with 50% Dextrose
 D. Ensure that the feeding solution has been warmed in a microwave for 2 minutes
 
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8. Which is true regarding the administration of antacids?
 A. Antacids should be administered without regard to mealtimes.
 B. Antacids should be administered with each meal and snack of the day.
 C. Antacids should not be administered with other medications.
 D. Antacids should be administered with all other medications, for maximal absorption.
 
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9. The nurse is caring for a patient with a colostomy. The patient asks, “Will I ever be able to swim again?” The nurse’s best response would be:
 A. “Yes, you should be able to swim again, even with the colostomy.”
 B. “You should avoid immersing the colostomy in water.”
 C. “No, you should avoid getting the colostomy wet.”
 D. “Don’t worry about that. You will be able to live just like you did before.”
 
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10. The nurse is assisting in the care of a patient who is 2 days post-operative from a hemorroidectomy. The nurse would be correct in instructing the patient to:
 A. Avoid a high-fiber diet
 B. Continue to use ice packs
 C. Take a laxative daily to prevent constipation
 D. Use a sitz bath after each bowel movement
 
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11. The nurse is assisting in the care of a client with diverticulosis. Which of the following assessment findings must necessitate an immediate report to the doctor?
 A. Bowel sounds are present
 B. Intermittent left lower-quadrant pain
 C. Constipation alternating with diarrhea
 D. Hemoglobin 26% and hematocrit 32
 
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12. The client is newly diagnosed with juvenile onset diabetes. Which of the following nursing diagnoses is a priority?
 A. Anxiety
 B. Pain
 C. Knowledge deficit
 D. Altered thought process
 
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13. The nurse is asked by the nurse aide, “Are peptic ulcers really caused by stress?” The nurse would be correct in replying with the following:
 A. “Peptic ulcers result from overeating fatty foods.”
 B. “Peptic ulcers are always caused from exposure to continual stress.”
 C. “Peptic ulcers are like all other ulcers, which all result from stress.”
 D. “Peptic ulcers are associated with H. pylori, although there are other ulcers that are associated with stress.”
 
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14. The nurse is assisting in the assessment of the patient admitted with “extreme abdominal pain.” The nurse asks the client about the medication that he has been taking because:
 A. Interactions between medications will cause abdominal pain.
 B. Various medications taken by mouth can affect the alimentary tract.
 C. This will provide an opportunity to educate the patient regarding the medications used.
 D. The types of medications might be attributable to an abdominal pathology not already identified.
 
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15. The nurse is assessing the abdomen. The nurse knows the best sequence to perform the assessment is:
 A. Inspection, auscultation, palpation
 B. Auscultation, palpation, inspection
 C. Palpation, inspection, auscultation
 D. Inspection, palpation, auscultation
 
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16. The nurse is caring for the client who has been in a coma for 2 months. He has signed a donor card, but the wife is opposed to the idea of organ donation. How should the nurse handle the topic of organ donation with the wife?
 A. Tell the wife that the hospital will honor her wishes regarding organ donation, but contact the organ-retrieval staff
 B. Tell her that because her husband signed a donor card, the hospital has the right to take the organs upon the death of her husband
 C. Explain that it is necessary for her to donate her husband’s organs because he signed the permit
 D. Refrain from talking about the subject until after the death of her husband
 
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17. The client with cancer refuses to care for herself. Which action by the nurse would be best?
 A. Alternate nurses caring for the client so that the staff will not get tired of caring for this client
 B. Talk to the client and explain the need for self-care
 C. Explore the reason for the lack of motivation seen in the client
 D. Talk to the doctor about the client’s lack of motivation
 
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18. The charge nurse is making assignments for the day. After accepting the assignment to a client with leukemia, the nurse tells the charge nurse that her child has chickenpox. Which initial action should the charge nurse take?
 A. Change the nurse’s assignment to another client
 B. Explain to the nurse that there is no risk to the client
 C. Ask the nurse if the chickenpox have scabbed
 D. Ask the nurse if she has ever had the chickenpox
 
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19. The nurse is caring for the client with a mastectomy. Which action would be contraindicated?
 A. Taking the blood pressure in the side of the mastectomy
 B. Elevating the arm on the side of the mastectomy
 C. Positioning the client on the unaffected side
 D. Performing a dextrostix on the unaffected side
 
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20. The client has an order for gentamycin to be administered. Which lab results should be reported to the doctor before beginning the medication?
 A. Hematocrit
 B. Creatinine
 C. White blood cell count
 D. Erythrocyte count
 
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21. Which of the following is the best indicator of the diagnosis of HIV?
 A. White blood cell count
 B. ELISA
 C. Western Blot
 D. Complete blood count
 
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22. The client presents to the emergency room with a “bull’s eye” rash. Which question would be most appropriate for the nurse to ask the client?
 A. “Have you found any ticks on your body?”
 B. “Have you had any nausea in the last 24 hours?”
 C. “Have you been outside the country in the last 6 months?”
 D. “Have you had any fever for the past few days?”
 
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23. Which client should be assigned to the nursing assistant?
 A. The 18-year-old with a fracture to two cervical vertebrae
 B. The infant with meningitis
 C. The elderly client with a thyroidectomy 4 days ago
 D. The client with a thoracotomy 2 days ago
 
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24. The client presents to the emergency room with a hyphema. Which action by the nurse would be best?
 A. Elevate the head of the bed and apply ice to the eye
 B. Place the client in a supine position and apply heat to the knee
 C. Insert a Foley catheter and measure the intake and output
 D. Perform a vaginal exam and check for a discharge
 
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25. The client has an order for FeSo4 liquid. Which method of administration would be best?
 A. Administer the medication with milk
 B. Administer the medication with a meal
 C. Administer the medication with orange juice
 D. Administer the medication undiluted
 
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26. The client with an ileostomy is being discharged. Which teaching should be included in the plan of care?
 A. Using Karaya powder to seal the bag.
 B. Irrigating the ileostomy daily.
 C. Using stomahesive as the best skin protector.
 D. Using Neosporin ointment to protect the skin.
 
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27. Vitamin K is administered to the newborn shortly after birth for which of the following reasons?
 A. To stop hemorrhage
 B. To treat infection
 C. To replace electrolytes
 D. To facilitate clotting
 
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28. Before administering Methyltrexate orally to the client with cancer, the nurse should check the:
 A. IV site
 B. Electrolytes
 C. Blood gases
 D. Vital signs
 
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29. The nurse is teaching a group of new graduates about the safety needs of the client receiving chemotherapy. Before administering chemotherapy, the nurse should:
 A. Administer a bolus of IV fluid
 B. Administer pain medication
 C. Administer an antiemetic
 D. Allow the patient a chance to eat
 
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30. The client is admitted to the postpartum unit with an order to continue the infusion of Pitocin. The nurse is aware that Pitocin is working if the fundus is:
 A. Deviated to the left.
 B. Firm and in the midline.
 C. Boggy.
 D. Two finger breadths below the umbilicus.
 
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31. A 5-year-old is a family contact to the client with tuberculosis. Isoniazid (INH) has been prescribed for the client. The nurse is aware that the length of time that the medication will be taken is:
 A. 6 months
 B. 3 months
 C. 1 year
 D. 2 years
 
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32. A 4-year-old with cystic fibrosis has a prescription for Viokase pancreatic enzymes to prevent malabsorption. The correct time to give pancreatic enzyme is:
 A. 1 hour before meals
 B. 2 hours after meals
 C. With each meal and snack
 D. On an empty stomach
 
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33. A client with osteomylitis has an order for a trough level to be done because he is taking Gentamycin. When should the nurse call the lab to obtain the trough level?
 A. Before the first dose
 B. 30 minutes before the fourth dose
 C. 30 minutes after the first dose
 D. 30 minutes before the first dose
 
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34. A new diabetic is learning to administer his insulin. He receives 10U of NPH and 12U of regular insulin each morning. Which of the following statements reflects understanding of the nurse’s teaching?
 A. “When drawing up my insulin, I should draw up the regular insulin first.”
 B. “When drawing up my insulin, I should draw up the NPH insulin first.”
 C. “It doesn’t matter which insulin I draw up first.”
 D. “I cannot mix the insulin, so I will need two shots.”
 
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35. The client is scheduled to have an intravenous cholangiogram. Before the procedure, the nurse should assess the patient for:
 A. Shellfish allergies
 B. Reactions to blood transfusions
 C. Gallbladder disease
 D. Egg allergies
 
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36. Shortly after the client was admitted to the postpartum unit, the nurse notes heavy lochia rubra with large clots. The nurse should anticipate an order for:
 A. Methergine
 B. Stadol
 C. Magnesium sulfate
 D. Phenergan
 
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37. The client with a recent liver transplant asks the nurse how long he will have to take an immunosuppressant. Which response would be correct?
 A. 1 year
 B. 5 years
 C. 10 years
 D. The rest of his life
 
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38. The client is admitted from the emergency room with multiple injuries sustained from an auto accident. His doctor prescribes a histamine blocker. The nurse is aware that the reason for this order is to:
 A. Treat general discomfort
 B. Correct electrolyte imbalances
 C. Prevent stress ulcers
 D. Treat nausea
 
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39. The physician prescribes regular insulin, 5 units subcutaneous. Regular insulin begins to exert an effect:
 A. In 5-10 minutes
 B. In 10-20 minutes
 C. In 30-60 minutes
 D. In 60-120 minutes
 
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40. A 60-year-old diabetic is taking glyburide (Diabeta) 1.25mg daily to treat Type II diabetes mellitus. Which statement indicates the need for further teaching?
 A. “I will keep candy with me just in case my blood sugar drops.”
 B. “I need to stay out of the sun as much as possible.”
 C. “I often skip dinner because I don’t feel hungry.”
 D. “I always wear my medical identification.”
 
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41. A 20-year-old female has a prescription for tetracycline. While teaching the client how to take her medicine, the nurse learns that the client is also taking Ortho-Novum oral contraceptive pills. Which instructions should be included in the teaching plan?
 A. The oral contraceptives will decrease the effectiveness of the tetracycline.
 B. Nausea often results from taking oral contraceptives and antibiotics.
 C. Toxicity can result when taking these two medications together.
 D. Antibiotics can decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives, so the client should use an alternate method of birth control.
 
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42. The client is taking prednisone 7.5mg po each morning to treat his systemic lupus erythematosis. Which statement best explains the reason for taking the prednisone in the morning?
 A. There is less chance of forgetting the medication if taken in the morning.
 B. There will be less fluid retention if taken in the morning.
 C. Prednisone is absorbed best with the breakfast meal.
 D. Morning administration mimics the body’s natural secretion of corticosteroid.
 
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43. The client is taking rifampin 600mg po daily to treat his tuberculosis. Which action by the nurse indicates understanding of the medication?
 A. Telling the client that the medication will need to be taken with juice
 B. Telling the client that the medication will change the color of the urine
 C. Telling the client to take the medication before going to bed at night
 D. Telling the client to take the medication if the night sweats occur
 
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44. The client is diagnosed with multiple myloma. The doctor has ordered cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan). Which instruction should be given to the client?
 A. “Walk about a mile a day to prevent calcium loss.”
 B. “Increase the fiber in your diet.”
 C. “Report nausea to the doctor immediately.”
 D. “Drink at least eight large glasses of water a day.”
 
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45. An elderly client is diagnosed with ovarian cancer. She has surgery followed by chemotherapy with a fluorouracil (Adrucil) IV. What should the nurse do if she notices crystals in the IV medication?
 A. Discard the solution and order a new bag
 B. Warm the solution
 C. Continue the infusion and document the finding
 D. Discontinue the medication
 
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46. The 10-year-old is being treated for asthma. Before administering Theodur, the nurse should check the:
 A. Urinary output
 B. Blood pressure
 C. Pulse
 D. Temperature
 
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47. Which information obtained from the mother of a child with cerebral palsy correlates to the diagnosis?
 A. She was born at 40 weeks gestation.
 B. She had meningitis when she was 6 months old.
 C. She had physiologic jaundice after delivery.
 D. She has frequent sore throats.
 
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48. A 6-year-old with cerebral palsy functions at the level of an 18-month old. Which finding would support that assessment?
 A. She dresses herself.
 B. She pulls a toy behind her.
 C. She can build a tower of eight blocks.
 D. She can copy a horizontal or vertical line.
 
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49. A 5-year-old is admitted to the unit following a tonsillectomy. Which of the following would indicate a complication of the surgery?
 A. Decreased appetite
 B. A low-grade fever
 C. Chest congestion
 D. Constant swallowing
 
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50. The child with seizure disorder is being treated with phenytoin (Dilantin). Which of the following statements by the patient’s mother indicates to the nurse that the patient is experiencing a side effect of Dilantin therapy?
 A. “She is very irritable lately.”
 B. “She sleeps quite a bit of the time.”
 C. “Her gums look too big for her teeth.”
 D. “She has gained about 10 pounds in the last six months.”

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Practice Tests: NCSBN Practice Exam #2 - 50 questions