Practice Tests: Practice Exam #8 - 50 questions

All 50 questions are randomized each time you take the test, and do not appear in the same order here.

 

 A client confides in the RN that a friend has told her the medication she takes for depression, Wellbutrin, was taken off the market because it caused seizures. What is an appropriate response by the nurse?
A) "Ask your friend about the source of this information."
B) "Omit the next doses until you talk with the doctor."
C) "There were problems, but the recommended dose is changed."
D) "Your health care provider knows the best drug for your condition."

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A child presents to the Emergency Department with documented acetaminophen poisoning. In order to provide counseling and education for the parents, which principle must the nurse understand?
A) The problem occurs in stages with recovery within 12-24 hours
B) Hepatic problems may occur and may be life-threatening
C) Full and rapid recovery can be expected in most children
D) This poisoning is usually fatal, as no antidote is available

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A client is receiving digitalis. The nurse should instruct the client to report which of the following side effects?
A) Nausea, vomiting, fatigue
B) Rash, dyspnea, edema
C) Polyuria, thirst, dry skin
D) Hunger, dizziness, diaphoresis

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The provider has ordered transdermal nitroglycerin patches for a client. Which of these instructions should be included when teaching a client about how to use the patches?
A) Remove the patch when swimming or bathing
B) Apply the patch to any non-hairy area of the body
C) Apply a second patch with chest pain
D) Remove the patch if ankle edema occurs

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A pregnant woman is hospitalized for treatment of pregnancy induced hypertension (PIH) in the third trimester. She is receiving magnesium sulfate intravenously. The nurse understands that this medication is used mainly for what purpose?
A) Maintain normal blood pressure
B) Prevent convulsive seizures
C) Decrease the respiratory rate
D) Increase uterine blood flow

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A client with anemia has a new prescription for ferrous sulfate. In teaching the client about diet and iron supplements, the nurse should emphasize that absorption of iron is enhanced if taken with which substance?
A) Acetaminophen
B) Orange juice
C) Low fat milk
D) An antacid

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 The health care provider has written "Morphine sulfate 2 mgs IV every 3-4 hours prn for pain" on the chart of a child weighing 22 lb. (10 kg). What is the nurse's initial action?
A) Check with the pharmacist
B) Hold the medication and contact the provider
C) Administer the prescribed dose as ordered
D) Give the dose every 6-8 hours

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The nurse is monitoring a client receiving a thrombolytic agent, alteplase (Activase tissue plasminogen activator), for treatment of a myocardial infarction. What outcome indicates the client is receiving adequate therapy within the first hours of treatment?
A) Absence of a dysrhythmia (or arrhythmia)
B) Blood pressure reduction
C) Cardiac enzymes are within normal limits
D) Return of ST segment to baseline on ECG

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 A nurse is assigned to perform well-child assessments at a day care center. A staff member interrupts the examinations to ask for assistance. They find a crying 3 year-old child on the floor with mouth wide open and gums bleeding. Two unlabeled open bottles lie nearby. The nurse's first action should be
A) call the poison control center, then 911
B) administer syrup of Ipecac to induce vomiting
C) give the child milk to coat her stomach
D) ask the staff about the contents of the bottles

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 A client is receiving erythromycin 500mg IV every 6 hours to treat a pneumonia. Which of the following is the most common side effect of the medication?
A) Blurred vision
B) Nausea and vomiting
C) Severe headache
D) Insomnia

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A 4 year-old child is admitted with burns on his legs and lower abdomen. When assessing the child’s hydration status, which of the following indicates a less than adequate fluid replacement?
A) Decreasing hematocrit and increasing urine volume
B) Rising hematocrit and decreasing urine volume
C) Falling hematocrit and decreasing urine volume
D) Stable hematocrit and increasing urine volume

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 Prior to administering Alteplase (TPA) to a client admitted for a cerebral vascular accident (CVA), it is critical that the nurse assess:
A) Neuro signs
B) Mental status
C) Blood pressure
D) PT/PTT

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 A nurse who has been named in a lawsuit can use which of these factors for the best protection in a court of law?
A) Clinical specialty certification in the associated area of practice
B) Documentation on the specific client record with a focus on the nursing process
C) Yearly evaluations and proficiency reports prepared by nurse’s manager
D) Verification of provider's orders for the plan of care with identification of outcomes

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The nurse is caring for clients over the age of 70. The nurse knows that due to age-related changes, the elderly clients tolerate diets that are
A) high protein
B) high carbohydrates
C) low fat
D) high calories

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 A client is to receive 3 doses of potassium chloride 10 mEq in 100cc normal saline to infuse over 30 minutes each. Which of the following is a priority assessment to perform before giving this medication?
A) Oral fluid intake
B) Bowel sounds
C) Grip strength
D) Urine output

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 A hypertensive client is started on atenolol (Tenormin). The nurse instructs the client to immediately report which of these findings?
A) Rapid breathing
B) Slow, bounding pulse
C) Jaundiced sclera
D) Weight gain

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During nursing rounds which of these assessments would require immediate corrective action and further instruction to the practical nurse (PN) about proper care?
A) The weights of the skin traction of a client are hanging about 2 inches from the floor
B) A client with a hip prosthesis 1 day post operatively is lying in bed with internal rotation and adduction of the affected leg
C) The nurse observes that the PN moves the extremity of a client with an external fixation device by picking up the frame
D) A client with skeletal traction states "The other nurse said that the clear, yellow and crusty drainage around the pin site is a good sign"

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 A client is scheduled for an intravenous pyelogram (IVP). After the contrast material is injected, which of the following client reactions should be reported immediately?
A) Feeling warm
B) Face flushing
C) Salty taste
D) Hives

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 You are caring for a hypertensive client with a new order for captopril (Capoten). Which information should the nurse include in client teaching?
A) Avoid green leafy vegetables
B) Restrict fluids to 1000cc/day
C) Avoid the use of salt substitutes
D) Take the medication with meals

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 A client has bilateral knee pain from osteoarthritis. In addition to taking the prescribed non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), the nurse should instruct the client to
A) start a regular exercise program
B) rest the knees as much as possible to decrease inflammation
C) avoid foods high in citric acid
D) keep the legs elevated when sitting

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 A client in respiratory distress is admitted with arterial blood gas results of: PH 7.30; PO2 58, PCO2 34; and HCO3 19. The nurse determines that the client is in
A) metabolic acidosis
B) metabolic alkalosis
C) respiratory acidosis
D) respiratory alkalosis

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 A woman with a 28 week pregnancy is on the way to the emergency department by ambulance with a tentative diagnosis of abruptio placenta. Which should the nurse do first when the woman arrives?
A) administer oxygen by mask at 100%
B) start a second IV with an 18 gauge cannula
C) check fetal heart rate every 15 minutes
D) insert urethral catheter with hourly urine outputs

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 You are caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis who is on Heparin IV. The latest APTT is 50 seconds. If the laboratory normal range is 16-24 seconds, you would anticipate
A) maintaining the current heparin dose
B) increasing the heparin as it does not appear therapeutic.
C) giving protamine sulfate as an antidote.
D) repeating the blood test 1 hour after giving heparin.

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A client newly diagnosed with Type I Diabetes Mellitus asks the purpose of the test measuring glycosylated hemoglobin.
The nurse should explain that the purpose of this test is to determine:
A) The presence of anemia often associated with Diabetes
B) The oxygen carrying capacity of the client's red cells
C) The average blood glucose for the past 2-3 months
D) The client's risk for cardiac complications

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 An 80 year-old client is admitted with a diagnosis of malnutrition. In addition to physical assessments, which of the following lab tests should be closely monitored?
A) Urine protein
B) Urine creatinine
C) Serum calcium
D) Serum albumin

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A 66 year-old client is admitted for mitral valve replacement surgery. The client has a history of mitral valve regurgitation and mitral stenosis since her teenage years. During the admission assessment, the nurse should ask the client if as a child she had
A) measles
B) rheumatic fever
C) hay fever
D) encephalitis

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Which of these clients should the charge nurse assign to the registered nurse (RN)?
A) A 56 year-old with atrial fibrillation receiving digoxin
B) A 60 year-old client with COPD on oxygen at 2 L/min
C) A 24 year-old post-op client with type 1 diabetes in the process of discharge
D) An 80 year-old client recovering 24 hours post right hip replacement

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The nurse discusses nutrition with a pregnant woman who is iron deficient and follows a vegetarian diet. The selection of which foods indicates the woman has learned sources of iron?
A) Cereal and dried fruits
B) Whole grains and yellow vegetables
C) Leafy green vegetables and oranges
D) Fish and dairy products

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A client diagnosed with gouty arthritis is admitted with severe pain and edema in the right foot. When the nurse develops a plan of care, which intervention should be included?
A) high protein diet
B) salicylates
C) hot compresses to affected joints
D) intake of at least 3000cc/day

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One hour before the first treatment is scheduled, the client becomes anxious and states he does not wish to go through with electroconvulsive therapy. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) "I’ll go with you and will be there with you during the treatment."
B) "You’ll be asleep and won’t remember anything."
C) "You have the right to change your mind. You seem anxious. Can we talk about it?"
D) "I’ll call the health care provider to notify them of your decision."

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 A male client is admitted with a spinal cord injury at level C4. The client asks the nurse how the injury is going to affect his sexual function. The nurse would respond
A) "Normal sexual function is not possible."
B) "Sexual functioning will not be impaired at all."
C) "Erections will be possible."
D) "Ejaculation will be normal."

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An 82 year-old client complains of chronic constipation. To improve bowel function, the nurse should first suggest
A) Increasing fiber intake to 20-30 grams daily
B) Daily use of laxatives
C) Avoidance of binding foods such as cheese and chocolate
D) Monitoring a balance between activity and rest

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 The unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports to the nurse that a client with cirrhosis who had a paracentesis yesterday has become more lethargic and has musty smelling breath. A critical assessment for increasing encephalopathy is
A) monitor the client's clotting status
B) assess upper abdomen for bruits
C) assess for flap-like tremors of the hands
D) measure abdominal girth changes

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 A client is admitted with a diagnosis of nodal bigeminy. The nurse knows that the atrioventricular (AV) node has an intrinsic rate of
A) 60-100 beats/minute
B) 10-30 beats/minute
C) 40-70 beats/minute
D) 20-50 beats/minute

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A client is admitted for a possible pacemaker insertion. What is the intrinsic rate of the heart's own pacemaker?
A) 30-50 beats/minute
B) 60-100 beats/minute
C) 20-60 beats/minute
D) 90-100 beats/minute

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A client is diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). The nurse's instruction to the client regarding diet should be to
A) avoid all raw fruits and vegetables
B) increase intake of milk products
C) decrease intake of fatty foods
D) focus on 3 average size meals a day

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 The nurse is teaching a client with chronic renal failure (CRF) about medications. The client questions the purpose of aluminum hydroxide (Amphojel) in her medication regimen. What is the best explanation for the nurse to give the client about the therapeutic effects of this medication?
A) It decreases serum phosphate
B) It will reduce serum calcium
C) Amphojel increases urine output
D) The drug is taken to control gastric acid secretion

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The client with goiter is treated with potassium iodide preoperatively. What should the nurse recognize as the purpose of this medication?
A) Reduce vascularity of the thyroid
B) Correct chronic hyperthyroidism
C) Destroy the thyroid gland function
D) Balance enzymes and electrolytes

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A client with testicular cancer has had an orchiectomy. Prior to discharge the client expresses his fears related to his prognosis. Which principle should the nurse base the response on?
A) Testicular cancer has a cure rate of 90% with early diagnosis
B) Testicular cancer has a cure rate of 50% with early diagnosis
C) Intensive chemotherapy is the treatment of choice
D) Testicular cancer is usually fatal

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 The nurse is caring for clients over the age of 70. The nurse is aware that when giving medications to older clients, it is best to
A) start low, go slow
B) avoid stopping a medication entirely
C) avoid drugs with side effects that impact cognition
D) review the drug regimen yearly

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 The nurse enters the room of a client diagnosed with COPD. The client’s skin is pink, and respirations are 8 per minute. The client’s oxygen is running at 6 liters per minute. What should be the nurse’s first action?
A) Call the health care provider
B) Put the client in Fowler’s position
C) Lower the oxygen rate
D) Take the vital signs

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 A client has an order for antibiotic therapy after hospital treatment of a staph infection. Which of the following should the nurse emphasize?
A) Scheduling follow-up blood cultures
B) Completing the full course of medications
C) Visiting the provider in a few weeks
D) Monitoring for signs of recurrent infection

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A 55 year-old woman is taking Prednisone and aspirin (ASA) as part of her treatment for rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following would be an appropriate intervention for the nurse?
A) Assess the pulse rate q 4 hours
B) Monitor her level of consciousness q shift
C) Test her stools for occult blood
D) Discuss fiber in the diet to prevent constipation

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 A client is prescribed an inhaler. How should the nurse instruct the client to breathe in the medication?
A) As quickly as possible
B) As slowly as possible
C) Deeply for 3-4 seconds
D) Until hearing whistling by the spacer

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After surgery, a client with a nasogastric tube complains of nausea. What action would the nurse take?
A) Call the health care provider
B) Administer an antiemetic
C) Put the bed in Fowler’s position
D) Check the patency of the tube

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 A 72 year-old client is admitted for possible dehydration. The nurse knows that older adults are particularly at risk for dehydration because they have
A) an increased need for extravascular fluid
B) a decreased sensation of thirst
C) an increase in diaphoresis
D) higher metabolic demands

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 Upon admission to an intensive care unit, a client diagnosed with an acute myocardial infarction is ordered oxygen. The nurse knows that the major reason that oxygen is administered in this situation is to
A) saturate the red blood cells
B) relieve dyspnea
C) decrease cyanosis
D) increase oxygen level in the myocardium

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 An arterial blood gases test (ABG) is ordered for a confused client. The respiratory therapist draws the blood and then asks the nurse to apply pressure to the area so the therapist can take the specimen to the lab. How long should the nurse apply pressure to the area?
A) 3 minutes
B) 5 minutes
C) 8 minutes
D) 10 minutes

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 A client receiving chemotherapy has developed sores in his mouth. He asks the nurse why this happened. What is the nurse’s best response?
A) "It is a sign that the medication is working."
B) "You need to have better oral hygiene."
C) "The cells in the mouth are sensitive to the chemotherapy."
D) "This always happens with chemotherapy."

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 A client with testicular cancer is scheduled for a right orchiectomy. The nurse knows that an orchiectomy is the
A) surgical removal of the entire scrotum
B) surgical removal of a testicle
C) dissection of related lymph nodes
D) partial surgical removal of the penis

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Practice Tests: Practice Exam #8 - 50 questions