QB2 | Practice Exam #41 -> answers with explanation - Free NCLEX Exam Practice

NCLEX-RN | QB2 | Practice Exam #41 (50 questions)

All 50 questions are randomized each time you take the test, and do not appear in the same order.

 

1. Situation: Sexually Transmitted Diseases are important to identify during pregnancy because of their potential effect on the pregnancy, fetus, or newborn. The following questions pertain to STD s. As a nurse in charge for this woman, you anticipate that the doctor will prescribe what medication for this type of infection?

• Podophyllum (Podofin)
• Flagyl
• Monistat
• Trichloroacetic acid

2. The nurse calls together an interdisciplinary team with members from medicine, social service, the clergy, and nutritional services to care for a patient with a terminal illness. Which of the following types of care would the team MOST likely be providing?

• Palliative
• Curative
• Respite
• Preventive

3. A technique In crisis intervention which involves using the clients emotion and values to his own benefit in the therapeutic regimen is known as:

• clarification
• reinforcement of behavior
• manipulation
• Support defense

4. A male client is addicted with hallucinogen. Which physiologic effect should the nurse expect?

• Bradyprea
• Bradycardia
• Constricted pupils
• Dilated pupils

5. The nurse creates a plan of care for a client with deep vein thrombosis. Which client position or activity in the plan should be included?

• Out-of-bed activities as desired
• Bed rest with the affected extremity kept flat
• Bed rest with elevation of the affected extremity
• Bed rest with the affected extremity in a dependent position

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6. A postpartum primipara asks the nurse, When can we have sexual intercourse again? Which of the following would be the nurse's best response?

• "Anytime you both want to."
• "As soon as choose a contraceptive method."
• "When the discharge has stopped and the incision is healed."
• "After your 6 weeks examination."

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7. When teaching a community class on cerebrovascular accidents (stroke), which of the following should participants of the class know at the completion of the class?

• Muscle and ligament damage is not reversible
• Expressive aphasia is resolved by voice rest
• There is a risk for mood disorders such as depression
• Liquids should be consumed at the same times as solids food

8. Family therapy is the treatment of choice in one of the following situations:

• There is a need to uncover repressed feelings and concerns of the clients
• There is a need to promote an environment adaptive to the individual client's needs
• The primary problem Is related to marital conflict or sibling rivalry
• The client requested for this type of therapy

9. Which of the following nursing intervention is important for a client scheduled to have Guaiac Test?

• Avoid turnips, radish and horseradish 3 days before procedure
• Continue iron preparation to prevent further loss of Iron
• Do not eat read meat 12 hours before procedure
• Encourage caffeine and dark colored foods to produce accurate results

10. A health care provider prescribes heparin sodium,1300 units/hour by continuous intravenous (IV) infusion. The pharmacy prepares the medication and delivers an IV bag labeled heparin sodium 20,000 units/250 mLDSW. An infusion pump must 166. be used to administer the medication. The nurse sets the infusion pump at how many milliliters per hour to deliver 1300 units/hour? answer to the nearest whole number.

• 16 mL per hour.
• 18 mL per hour.
• 14 mL per hour.
• 20 mL per hour.

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11. Cyanosis is blue color of skin, is caused by:

• Fever
• Hypertension
• Low tissue oxygenation
• Kidney disease

12. The four main concepts common to nursing that appear in each of the current conceptual models are:

• Person, nursing, environment, medicine
• Person, health, nursing, support systems
• Person, health, psychology, nursing
• Person, environment, health, nursing

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13. A nurse aide finds a resident looking in the refrigerator at the nurses station at 5 a m. The resident, who is confused, explains he needs breakfast before he leaves for work. The best response by the nurse aide is to:

• help the resident back to his room and into bed.
• ask the resident about his job and if he is hungry.
• tell him that residents are not allowed in the nurses' station.
• remind him that he is retired from his job and in a nursing home.

14. In a gravido-cardiac mother, the first 2 hours postpartum (4th stage of labor and delivery) particularly in a cesarean section is a critical period because at this stage

• There is a fluid shift from the placenta circulation to the maternal circulation which can overload the compromised heart
• There is a fluid shift from the placental circulation to the maternal circulation which can overload the compromised heart.
• The delivery process is strenuous to the mother
• The mother is tired and weak which can distress the heart

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15. A client admitted for treatment of bacterial pneumonia has an order for intravenous ampicillin. Which specimen should be obtained prior to administering the medication?

• Routine urinalysis
• Complete blood count
• Serum electrolytes
• Sputum for culture and sensitivity

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16. The client with rheumatoid arthritis is for discharge. In preparing the client for discharge on prednisone therapy, the nurse should advise the client to:

• Wear sunglasses if exposed to bright light for an extended period of time.
• Take oral preparations of prednisone before meals.
• Have periodic complete blood counts while on the medication.
• Never stop or change the amount of the medication without medical advice.

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17. The nurse is caring for a client with peripheral vascular disease. To correctly assess the oxygen saturation level, the monitor may be placed on the:

• Hip
• Ankle
• Earlobe
• Chin

18. Toxicity from which of the following medications may cause a client to see a green halo around lights?

• Digoxin
• Furosemide
• Metoprolol
• Enalapril

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19. Which of the following complications are three main consequences of leukemia?

• Bone deformities, spherocytosis, and infection.
• Anemia, infection, and bleeding tendencies
• Lymphocytopoiesis, growth delays, and hirsutism
• Polycythemia, decreased clotting time, and infection.

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20. Nurse Candy is aware that the family planning method that may give 98% protection to another pregnancy to women

• Pills
• Tubal ligation
• Lactational Amenorrhea method (LAM)
• IUD

21. A newly admitted female client was diagnosed with agranulocytosis. The nurse formulates which priority nursing diagnosis?

• Constipation
• Diarrhea
• Risk for infection
• Deficient knowledge

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22. Which of the following types of health care services is an example of the primary level of care?

• Diagnosis
• Acute care
• Restoration
• Immunization

23. Which of the following signs and symptoms will most likely make the nurse suspect that the patient is having hydatidiform mole?

• Slight bleeding
• Passage of clear vesicular mass per vagina
• Absence of fetal heart beat
• Enlargement of the uterus

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24. Food fortification is one of the strategies to prevent micronutrient deficiency conditions. RA 8976 mandates fortification of certain food items. Which of the following is among these food items?

• Sugar
• Bread
• Margarine
• Filled milk

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25. A physician orders gastric decompression for a client with small bowel obstruction. The nurse should plan for the suction to be:

• low pressure and intermittent
• low pressure and continuous
• high pressure and continuous
• high pressure and intermittent

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26. The nurse is caring for an obstetrical client in early labor. After the rupture of membranes the nurse should give priority to:

• Applying an internal monitor
• Assessing fetal heart tones
• Assisting with epidural anesthesia
• Inserting a Foley catheter

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27. The client is having electroconvulsive therapy for treatment of severe depression. Prior to the ECT the nurse should:

• Apply a tourniquet to the clients arm.
• Administer an anticonvulsant medication.
• Ask the client if he is allergic to shellfish.
• Apply a blood pressure cuff to the arm.

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28. The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client receiving trimethoprim­/sulfamethoxazole. Which instruction should be included in the list?

• Advise that sunscreen is not needed.
• Drink 8 to 10 glasses of water per day.
• If the urine turns dark brown, call the health care provider (HCP) immediately.
• Decrease the dosage when symptoms are improving to prevent an allergic response.

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29. Situation: Jerome, a 37 years old man, was admitted to the hospital with periodic episode of manic behavior alternating with me depression. Diagnosis: Bipolar 1 disorder Q. During a nurse patient interaction, Jerome jumps rapidly from one topic to another This is known as:

• Flight of Ideas
• Idea of Reference
• Clang association
• Neologism

30. Mr. Cruz visits the physicians office to seek treatment for depression, feelings of hopelessness, poor appetite, insomnia, fatigue, low self esteem, poor concentration, and difficulty making decisions. The client states that these symptoms began at least 2 years ago. Based on this report, the nurse Tiffany suspects:

• Cyclothymic disorder.
• Atypical affective disorder.
• Major depression.
• Dysthymic disorder.

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31. Situation: Rudy was diagnosed to have chronic renal failure. Hemodialysis is ordered that an A-V shunt was surgically created. Q. You are assisted by a nursing aide with the care of the client with renal failure. Which delegated function to the aide would you particularly check?

• Monitoring and recording I and O
• Checking bowel movement
• Obtaining vital signs
• Monitoring diet

32. A client involved in a motor vehicle crash presents to the emergency department with severe internal bleeding. The client is severely hypotensive and unresponsive. The nurse anticipates that which intravenous (IV) solution will most likely be prescribed for this client?

• 5% dextrose in lactated Ringer's solution
• 0.33% sodium chloride (1/3 normal saline)
• 0.45% sodium chloride (1/2 normal saline)
• 0.225% sodium chloride (1/4 normal saline)

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33. A client has HEMOSIDEROSIS. Which of the following drug would you expect to be given to the client?

• Acetazolamide
• Deferoxamine
• Calcium EDTA
• Activated charcoal

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34. A sexually active young adult client has developed viral hepatitis. Which client statement indicates the need for further teaching?

• "I should avoid drinking alcohol."
• "I can go back to work right away."
• "My partner should get the vaccine."
• "A condom should be used for sexual intercourse."

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35. The nurse is teaching the mother of a 3-months-old infant about bottle feeding. Which statement indicates the mother understands of appropriate procedure?

• "I should hold my baby in as lightly reclined position, close to my body"
• "It is OK to prop the bottle on a pillow."
• "It can feed my baby whole milk"
• "I should warm the bottles in the microwave if they come out of the Refrigerator".

36. The suggested diet for a child with cystic fibrosis is one that contains:

• High calories high protein moderate fat
• High calories moderate protein sow fat
• Moderate calories moderate protein moderate fat
• Low calories high protein low fat

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37. Which of the following drugs should the nurse prepare to administer to a client with a toxic acetaminophen (Tylenol) level?

• deferoxamine mesylate (Desferal)
• succimer (Chemet)
• flumazenil (Romazicon)
• acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)

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38. Situation: Tony, 11 years old, has kissing tonsils and is scheduled for tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy or T and A. Q. The RR nurse should monitor for the most common postoperative complication of:

• hemorrhage
• endotracheal tube perforation
• esopharyngeal edema
• epiglottis

39. Mr Snyder is admitted to your unit with a brain tumor. The type of tumor he has is currently unknown. You begin to think about the way brain tumors are classified. Q. Whether Mr Snyder's tumor is benign or malignant, it will eventually cause increased intracranial pressure. Signs and symptoms of increasing intracranial pressure may include all of the following except:

• headache, nausea, and vomiting
• papilledema, dizziness, mental status changes
• obvious motor deficits
• increased pulse rate, drop in blood pressure

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40. The obstetric clients fetal heart rate is 80 to 90 during the contractions. The first action the nurse should take is:

• Reposition the monitor.
• Turn the client to her left side.
• Ask the client to ambulate.
• Prepare the client for delivery.

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41. The nurse is preparing to care for a newborn receiving phototherapy. Which interventions should be included in the plan of care? Select all that apply. 1.Avoid stimulation. 2.Decrease fluid intake. 3.Expose all of the newborn's skin. 4.Monitor skin temperature closely. 5.Reposition the newborn every 2 hours. 6.Cover the newborn's eyes with eye shields or patches.

• 1,2,3
• 3,4,5
• 1,4,5
• 4,5,6

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42. The nurse has taught the client about an upcoming endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) procedure. The nurse determines that the client needs further information if the client makes which statement?

• "I know I must sign the consent form.”
• "I hope the throat spray keeps me from gagging.”
• "I'm glad I don't have to lie still forth is procedure."
• "I'm glad some intravenous medication will be given to relax me."

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43. Which action by the novice nurse indicates a need for further teaching?

• The nurse fails to wear gloves to remove a dressing.
• The nurse applies an oxygen saturation monitor to the ear lobe.
• The nurse elevates the head of the bed to check the blood pressure.
• The nurse places the extremity in a dependent position to acquire a peripheral blood sample.

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44. The nurse is evaluating teaching effectiveness on a client with a gastrointestinal disorder prescribed a gluten-free diet Which diet choice indicates that the client understands the instructions given?

• Steamed broccoli
• Wheat toast
• Chocolate chip cookie
• Bran cereal

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45. A client with myasthenia gravis is admitted in a cholinergic crisis. Signs of of cholinergic crisis include:

• Decreased blood pressure and constricted pupils
• Increased heart rate and increased respirations
• Increased respirations and increased blood pressure
• Anoxia and absence of the cough reflex

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46. Situation: Mrs. Pichay is admitted to your ward. The MD ordered Prepare for thoracentesis this pm to remove excess air from the pleural cavity." Q. During thoracentesis, which of the following nursing intervention will be most crucial?

• Place patient in a quiet and cool room
• Maintain strict aseptic technique
• Advice patient to sit perfectly still during needle insertion until it has been withdrawn from the chest
• Apply pressure over the puncture site as soon as the needle is withdrawn

47. What is the most effective way of controlling schistosomiasis in an endemic area?

• Use of molluscicides
• Building of foot bridges
• Proper use of sanitary toilets
• Use of protective footwear, such as rubber boots

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48. While a client with hypertension is being assessed, he says to the nurse, I really don t know why I am here. I feel fine and haven't had any symptoms." The nurse would explain to the client that symptoms of hypertension:

• Are often not present
• Signify a high risk of stroke
• Occur only with malignant hypertension
• Appear after irreversible kidney damage has occurred

49. A client is unwilling to go to his church because his ex-girlfriend goes there and he feels that she will laugh at him if she sees him. Because of this hypersensitivity to a reaction from her, the client remains homebound. The home care nurse develops a plan of care that addresses which personality disorder?

• Avoidant
• Borderline
• Schizotypal
• Obsessive-compulsive

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50. In a multiple-trauma victim, which assessment finding signals the most serious and life­ threatening condition?

• A deviated trachea
• Gross deformity in a lower extremity
• Decreased bowel sounds
• Hematuria

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NCLEX-RN | QB2 | Practice Exam #41 (50 questions)