1. A child with acute lymphoid leukemia (ALL) is started on chemotherapy protocol that includes prednisone. What side effect of this medication does the nurse anticipate?

  • Alopecia
  • Anorexia
  • Weight loss
  • Mood changes

2. An adolescent sustains a sports-related fracture of the femur, and an open reduction and internal fixation with a rod insertion is performed. After the surgery, a nurse identifies that the adolescent is very upset. Considering the developmental level, what does the nurse conclude is the most likely explanation for this distress?

  • The need to navigate in a wheelchair
  • The perception that the rod is a body intrusion
  • Inability to participate in sports for several years
  • Relief of pain will necessitate medication until the bone heals

3. One principle to be followed for children with type 1 dia­betes is to provide for the variability of the child’s activity. What should the nurse teach the child about how to com­pensate for increased physical activity?

  • Eat more food when planning to exercise more than usual.
  • Take oral, not injectable insulin, on days of heavy exercise
  • Take insulin in the morning when extra exercise is anticipated
  • Eat foods that contain sugar to compensate for the extra exercise.

4. The parent of a child with hemophilia asks the nurse, “If my son hurts himself, is it all right if I give him two baby aspi­rins?” How should the nurse respond?

  • “You seem concerned about giving drugs to your child.”
  • “It is all right to give him baby aspirin when he hurts himself.”
  • “Aspirin may cause more bleeding. Give him acetamino­phen instead.”
  • “He should be given acetaminophen every day. It will prevent bleeding.”

5. When teaching an adolescent with type 1 diabetes about dietary management, what should the nurse include?

  • Meals should be eaten at home.
  • Foods should be weighed on a gram scale.
  • Ready source of glucose should be available.
  • Specific foods should be cooked for the adolescent.

Read more: Nclex Tutorial

 1. A nurse is counseling a woman who was just diagnosed with a multiple gestation. Why does the nurse consider this pregnancy as high risk?

  • Postpartum hemorrhage is an expected complication.
  • Perinatal mortality is 2 to 3 times greater in multiple than in single births.
  • Maternal mortality is higher during the prenatal period with a multiple gestation.
  • Optimum adjustment following a multiple birth requires 6 months to 1 year of time.

2. A client tells a nurse in the prenatal clinic that she has vaginal staining but no pain. Her history reveals amenorrhea for the last 2 months and pregnancy confirmation after her first missed period. She is admitted to the high-risk unit because she may be having a spontaneous abortion. What type of abortion is suspected?

  • Missed
  • Inevitable
  • Threatened
  • Incomplete

3. Despite medication, a client’s preterm labor continues, her cervix dilates, and birth appears to be inevitable. Which medication does the nurse anticipate will be prescribed to increase the chance of the newborn’s survival?

  • Ritodrine (Yutopar)
  • Misoprostil (Cytotec)
  • Terbutaline (Brethine)
  • Betamethasone (Celestone)

4. A client at 9 weeks’ gestation asks the nurse in the prenatal clinic if she can have her chorionic villi sampling (CVS) done at this visit. At what week gestation should the nurse respond is the best time for this test?

  • 8 weeks and less than 10 weeks
  • 10 weeks and less than 12 weeks
  • 12 weeks and less than 14 weeks
  • 14 weeks and less than 16 weeks

5. A client tells a nurse that she does not want an episiotomy and would rather tear naturally. What information should be offered regarding each birthing method?

  • Lacerations are more painful than an episiotomy.
  • Lacerations are easier to repair than an episiotomy.
  • An episiotomy causes less posterior trauma than lacerations.
  • An episiotomy is preferred over lacerations according to evidence-based practice.

Read more: NCLEX Quiz Questions 2024

 1. A nurse in the prenatal clinic is caring for a client with heart disease who is in the second trimester. What hemodynamic of pregnancy may affect the client at this time?

  • Decrease in the number of RBCs
  • Gradually increasing size of the uterus
  • Heart rate acceleration in the last half of pregnancy
  • Increase in cardiac output during the third trimester

2. A nurse is monitoring a client with severe preeclampsia for the onset of eclampsia. What clinical finding indicate an impending seizure?

  • Persistent headache with blurred vision
  • Epigastric pain with nausea and vomiting
  • Spots with flashes of light before the eyes
  • Rolling of the eyes to one side with a fixed stare

3. The nurse is counseling a pregnant client with type 1 diabe tes about medication changes as pregnancy progresses. Which medication will be needed in increased dosages during the second half of her pregnancy?

  • Insulin
  • Antihypertensives
  • Pancreatic enzymes
  • Estrogenic hormones

4. A nurse in the birthing suite has just admitted four clients. Which client should the nurse anticipate will need to be prepared for a cesarean birth?

  • Multipara with a shoulder presentation
  • Multipara with a documented station of “floating”
  • Primigravida with a fetus presenting in the occiput posterior position
  • Primigravida with a twin gestation with the lowermost in the vertex presentation

5. A newborn has small, whitish, pinpoint spots over the nose that are caused by retained sebaceous secretions. When documenting this observation, a nurse identifies them as:

  • milia.
  • lanugo.
  • whiteheads.
  • mongolian spots.

Read more: Free Quizzes for Nurses

 1. A nurse is caring for four clients who each have one of the following conditions. Which client should the nurse anticipate will be instructed not to breastfeed by the health care provider?

  • Mastitis
  • Inverted nipples
  • Herpes genitalis
  • Human immunodeficiency virus

2. A woman learning about infant feedings asks a nurse how anyone who is breastfeeding gets anything done with a baby on demand feedings. Which is the best response by the nurse?

  • “Most mothers find that feeding the baby whenever the baby cries works out fine.”
  • “Perhaps a schedule might be better because the baby is already accustomed to the hospital routine.”
  • “Babies on demand feedings eventually set a schedule, so there should be time for you to do other things.”
  • “Most breastfeeding mothers find that their babies do better on demand because the amount of milk ingested may vary at each feeding.”

3. An infant develops purulent conjunctivitis on the fourth day of life and is brought to the emergency department. What is the priority nursing action?

  • Assess for signs of pneumonia.
  • Secure an order for allergy testing of the infant.
  • Bathe the infant’s eyes with tepid boric acid solution.
  • Teach the mother to wash her hands before touching the infant.

4. A nurse is teaching a group of new mothers about breastfeeding. Which factor that influences the availability of milk in the lactating woman should the nurse include in the teaching?

  • Age of the woman at the time of the birth
  • Distribution of erectile tissue in the nipples
  • Amount of milk products consumed during pregnancy
  • Viewpoint of the woman’s family toward breastfeeding

5. A nurse teaches a group of postpartum clients that all their newborns will be screened for phenylketonuria (PKU) to:

  • assess protein metabolism.
  • reveal potential retardation.
  • detect chromosomal damage.
  • identify thyroid insufficiency.

Read more: NCLEX Obstetric CAT Practice Test

 1. For how long should a nurse maintain isolation of a child with bacterial meningitis?

  • For 12 hours after admission
  • Until the cultures are negative
  • Until antibiotic therapy is completed
  • For 48 hours after antibiotic therapy begins

2. What should be included in the nursing care of an infant with increased intracranial pressure?

  • Weigh daily before feeding.
  • Elevate the head higher than the hips.
  • Check the reflexes at regular intervals.
  • Monitor alertness with frequent stimulation.

3. An additional defect is associated with exstrophy of the bladder. For what anomaly should the nurse assess the infant?

  • Imperforate anus
  • Absence of one kidney
  • Congenital heart disease
  • Pubic bone malformation

4. A 6-month-old infant is brought to the emergency department in severe respiratory distress. A diagnosis of respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) is made and the infant is admitted to the pediatric unit. What should be included in the nursing plan of care?

  • Place in a warm, dry environment.
  • Allow parents and siblings to visit.
  • Maintain standard and contact precautions.
  • Administer prescribed antibiotic immediately.

5. The parents of an infant who has had a surgical repair of a myelomeningocele express concern about skin care and ask what they can do to avoid problems. The nurse should teach the parents that their infant:

  • will require long-term multidisciplinary follow-up care.
  • should take prophylactic antibiotic therapy indefinitely.
  • must be kept dry by applying powder after each diaper change.
  • does not need anything more than routine cleansing and diaper changes.

Read more: NCLEX Pediatric Quiz Test

 1. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory report of a child with tetralogy of Fallot that indicates an elevated RBC count. What does the nurse identify as the cause of the polycythemia?

  • Low blood pressure
  • Tissue oxygen needs
  • Diminished iron level
  • Hypertrophic cardiac muscle

2. A 1-month-old infant is admitted to the pediatric unit with a tentative diagnosis of Hirschsprung disease (congenital aganglionic megacolon). What procedure does the nurse expect to be used to confirm the diagnosis?

  • Colonoscopy
  • Rectal biopsy
  • Multiple saline enemas
  • Fiberoptic nasoenteric tube

3. What should nursing care for an infant after the surgical repair of a cleft lip include?

  • Preventing crying
  • Placing in a semi-Fowler position
  • Keeping NPO for 1 day after surgery
  • Feeding with a spoon for 2 days after surgery

4. What should a nurse use to feed an infant born with a unilateral cleft lip and palate?

  • Plastic spoon
  • Cross-cut nipple
  • Parenteral infusion
  • Rubber-tipped syringe

5. A nurse is caring for an infant with a tentative diagnosis of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS). What is most important for the nurse to assess?

  • Quality of the cry
  • Signs of dehydration
  • Coughing up of feedings
  • Characteristics of the stool

Read more: NCLEX CAT Simulator 2024